Talk:Idempotents in group rings (Ex)

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Recall that by the representation theory of finite groups we have

\displaystyle  \C\lbrack \Z/p\Z \rbrack \cong \prod_p \C

since all irreducibles are 1-dimensional as the group is abelian. Hence the idempotents of \C\lbrack \Z/p\Z \rbrack are precisely p-tupels with entries either 0 or 1, since x \in \C^p fulfills x^2 = x if and only if each x_i \in \C fulfills x_i^2 = x_i which implies the claim.

Let us turn to the other two rings and let us focus on the case
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first. It is a standard fact that this ring is isomorphic to
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where the last equality holds since we are in characteristic p.

Now it is a fact from commutative algebra that the ring
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is local. This can be shown as follows. Suppose
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is a maximal ideal. We let
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be its preimage under the canonical projection. It is a prime ideal that contains the ideal (x-1)^p and hence must contain the ideal (x-1). But since (x-1) is maximal in
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we must have equality, i.e., \mathfrak{m}^\prime = (x-1) and hence \mathfrak{m} is the image of the ideal generated by (x-1) which determines \mathfrak{m} uniquely. Thus
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has a unique maximal ideal. So we have shown that
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is a local ring. In particular every element fulfills that either x or 1-x is invertible (in a local ring the complement of the maximal ideal consists of the units). Thus if x is an idempotent it must be 0 or 1. We can put this in more geometric terms as follows. The ring
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is a local, artinian ring (this ring is not only finitely generated as an
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-algebra but also as an
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-module and is thus artinian) and hence its spectrum consists of precisely one point (every prime ideal is maximal). But a non-trivial idempotent e \in R for any ring decomposes the ring into the product eR \times (1-e)R and hence the spectrum of R is a disjoint union of two non-empty subsets. Of course, this cannot be the case if the spectrum consists only of one point.

We now claim that also in the ring \Z\lbrack \Z/p\Z\rbrack for general prime numbers p there are only the trivial idempotents. This follows from the previous considerations as follows. Suppose we have an idempotent x \in \Z\lbrack \Z/p\Z \rbrack. Then we have just shown that the reduction mod p of x is either 0 or 1. Without loss of generality we may assume that it is zero. But then it follows that x = p\cdot y for some y \in \Z\lbrack \Z/p\Z \rbrack. But since x is an idempotent it fulfills x^k = x for all k \geq 2. Calculating x^k = (py)^k = p^k\cdot y^k shows that x is divisible by p^k for all k \geq 2 which implies that x = 0.

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